I have a kenwood 9103D 1800watt peak amp. I am wondering what is the difference between 2 ohms and 4 ohms and how to choose them. As well how do I don't overcook my subs or amp if not correctly chosen with subs of the same ohms. thanks for reading this post

 

First, IGNORE anything that says max or peak. Talk real power.

Second, your amp will have a certain rms power for a certain ohm value.
Example: 915 watts rms @ 2 ohm.

If you use one 2 ohm sub, you'll get 915 watts before clipping.
OR you can use two 4 ohm subs, in paralell for a 2 ohm load.
Guess how much power each sub will get?

Thats the 800th time i've explained that.

Wht don't they teach basic electronics in grade school?

2 + 2 = 4
4 / 2 = 2

 

yah the kenwood amp will pump out this
500 rms x 2 channells
800 rms x 1 channell

"If you use one 2 ohm sub, you'll get 915 watts before clipping.
OR you can use two 4 ohm subs, in paralell for a 2 ohm load.
Guess how much power each sub will get?"
what is clipping? and how do i do them paralell?
super noob at understanding this

 

Wrong! It's a mono amp. You don't have 2 channels. The specs i looked up say:
500 w rms @ 4 ohm
900 w rms @ 2 ohm

Wasn't it ohms you asked about in the first place?
Now you need to decide if you're going to run 1 or 2 subs?
I like 2. Two 4 ohm subs that will take 450 w rms each is what you need.
Then we'll get into single or dual voice coil.
12" CVR's are rated 400 rms. Since they're dual voice coil, you'd want the 2 ohm version. Wire the coils on each in series and run both to the amp in paralell. Throw them in a cheappy bassworks box and you're done.

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Wow I didn't know their was this much to subs . Whats the difference between a single or dual voice coal and "Wire the coils on each in series and run both to the amp in paralell." Whats wireing in series and parallel. is their a webpage or somethen that can teach me a bit about it thanks for the time you have spent answering these questions.

 

http://www.bcae1.com/

Read this. ALL OF IT!

 

while we are on the discussion of ohm maybe someone can clairfy this one for me

JL 500/1v2
Rated Power: 500 W RMS @ 1.5 ohm - 4 ohm (11V-14.5V)

does that mean that it only puts out 500 W RMS from 1.5 ohms - 4 ohm?

unlike the Kenwood amplifiier that put out more Watts at the lower ohm

seems strange to me if my amp works like that and others don't

 

yeah, my clarion is like that:

CEA 2006 Power Ratings: 450W × 1 Into 4 Ohms, 20Hz-20kHz @ < 0.05%THD
CEA 2006 Power Ratings: 800W × 1 Into 1 or 2 Ohms, 20Hz-20kHz @ < 0.1%THD

i don't really understand how/why they do that, but meh, it sounds good

 

yes
JL did it as a design choise
Clarion did it to keep the amp inexpensive to make more power into lower loads it would have missed its price point

 

How and why do they do that? Do the amps sense the load and drop the voltage output for lower impedences?