ok well a lil will ago i asked why a 2 way speaker can be 4 ohm, blah blah blah. because of the freq they play, blah blah blah. well this question is along the same lines.

well in this guys car, i put some 6.5" type S 2 ways. but i left the factory tweets in too, so now is the amp seeing a 8 ohm load at some points because the factory tweets and the Type S tweets would play the same freq. at the same time? i did disconect the factory tweets for a while, but the sound stage SUXED, so i reconnected them. never really noticed a diff in power when connected/ unconnected, just ****y imaging...

thanks alot guys...

[ June 08, 2005, 08:13 PM: Message edited by: WD21 ]

 

If you hook up a 4 ohm speaker with a 4 ohm speaker you can get a 2 ohm or a 8 ohm load. Since it is amped you probably wont notice too much of a difference in output. Kinda weird to have Type S's coaxial's hooked up with factory tweet though. I wouldent do it. But if it sounds good all the power to you.

 

well what i was told by a very trustworthy person IMO is that they will only be 2 or 8 ohm IF they play the same freq...

and ya i know that its kinda wiried leavin the stock tweets in when we spend a fair bit of time/money on all the other equipment. we were looking for a component set for the front, but the 2way type S' came up for a pretty good price soo...

and