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ohm question

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Old May 30, 2005 | 03:07 PM
  #1  
WD21's Avatar
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ok this maybe a stupid question but oh well

today in LA class i was really bored so i started thinking, how can a 2 way speaker be 4 ohm? are both coils(woffer and tweet) 2 ohm and then wired in series? or does the resistor have somthing to do with ohms? and what would happen if you disabled the tweet? would the speaker become 2 ohm? or 8? or what?

thanks alot guys and gals [img]graemlins/thumb.gif[/img]
Old May 30, 2005 | 07:41 PM
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WOW that explains quite a bit, thanx Dukk. so im assuming the crossover is the resistor/cap, is that right?
Old May 30, 2005 | 11:28 PM
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yepper here is a preety good page on passive crossovers. explains quite a bit.

What happens to the Impedance? Am I putting speakers in Parallel?
If you pick the same cross-over points for both the high-pass and the low-pass filter, then when you connect these together to the same power amp output, the impedance is the same as if it was a single speaker.

Why is this?

Since the speakers are now conducting on a limited frequency range, as long as those ranges do not overlap, the net effect (as far as your power amp can tell) is that its only a single speaker load. You are not putting speakers in parallel.
http://www.colomar.com/Shavano/crossover6db.html
Old May 31, 2005 | 02:51 PM
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ok well thanks alot everybody, helps out quite abit.

One more thing, when a amp says that it will put out say 500WRMS at 1000hz, will the amp put out more or less power at a lower freq (say 55hz)?
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