for those of you who helped me on my thread last time (already archived so i had to start a new one)...

is it possible for the problem i had before to almost completely disappear just by changing amps? it seems once i changed my amp over to the one i was planning on using, the resonance almost completely disappeared... i know that amp i have in now is supposed to have a very flat response up to 50khz +/-0.1dbs... although im not sure about the temporary amp... i did just put it back and the problem is there again... is this a normal thing to happen? that my temp amp has such a big peak or dip in its frequency response that it completely changes the sound?

thanks

 

What you mean all amps dont sound the same???
this will be a good thread ...

Dazz, you might as well go put on the pointy hat sit in the corner and put voodophile in your signature. [img]tongue.gif[/img]

 

hahah. they dont?

 

come on, everyone knows that nobody can hear any difference between pyramid audison's thesis!

 

1) The better performing amp simply has better control over the speaker
2) Any impedance issue for the first amp (mechanical/ electrical) wasn’t an issue for the second amp
3) It is possible the first amp was not performing as designed or was poorly designed

Interesting that the resonance issue was an amp problem… sounds like hypothesis #3 to me

 

original thread:
http://www.canadiancaraudio.com/ubb/...=000780#000000

Maybe...just maybe...the new amp is putting out more or less power...

or as previously stated the first amp was not operating properly.

 

Agreed we need new arguements

 

yeah... the temp amp is putting out 50x2 and the new amp is putting out 200x2... with the new amp the problem isnt a 100% gone but 99%... i can kinda hear it occasionally but its more subtle... the old amp has the problem too but a lot more and is very noticable...

[ September 21, 2005, 11:59 AM: Message edited by: DaZZ ]